Re: "Jerusalems" of John 1:19

From: Ben Crick (
Date: Tue Mar 03 1998 - 21:45:32 EST

On Mon 2 Mar 98 (22:51:21), wrote:
>╩Why is "Jerusalem" (IEROSOLUMWN) plural in John 1:19?

 Because YeRuWShaLaYiM in Hebrew is Dual in form, though singular in number.
 Strict grammarians would woodenly transliterate it into hIEROSOLUMA, then
 treat it as plural since Greek has no Dual between singular and plural.

 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)

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