Fw: The Word of God and Scripture

From: E.D. Cabanne (watrlike@quiknet.com)
Date: Thu Mar 05 1998 - 10:27:08 EST


----------
> From: E.D. Cabanne <watrlike@quiknet.com>
> To: Peter Phillips <p.m.phillips@champness.shef.ac.uk>
> Subject: Re: The Word of God and Scripture
> Date: Thursday, March 05, 1998 1:02 AM
>
> Peter, it seems that I have made matters more confusing than I might have
> by using the word "equate". I am interested in the phrase "the word of
> God". Does it, in any context where it occurs "refer" (I hope this is
> better than equate) to scripture? Clayton has provided two fine examples
> that I had previously considered and shall take up with him if I have
time. Unless
> there are a whole lot more of such verses that I have missed, these
measely two, support my
> observation that this phrase, so frequent and powerfully indicative of
> God's active expression, presence, being and doing, in the Older
Testament,

> is not so nearly Biblically or exegetically authorized to mean
"scripture",
> as it is supposed in common conservative Christian parlance. I want to
> stress that I am speaking exegetically and calling for nuance and
deference
> to scripture's own use of the phrase, not trying to make or instigate a
> theological discussion. If we were in a theological talk group I would
> historically systematically and spiritually defend the appropriateness of
> using this phrase with regards to scripture, but since we are not,
> exegetically speaking, I think we must face and accept the data. The
facts
> are (as best as I can see so far) that scripture itself does not (with
one
> or two debateable instances) refer to scripture as "the word of God". But
> again I could be wrong and would like to see where I am.
> Just for fun, plug in "scripture" or "the Bible" wherever you find "the
> word of God" and see what I mean. This is what goes on incessantly and
> uncritically in popular Christian culture. We B-Greekers, it seems to me
> can provide some scriptural grounding here.
> ----------
> > From: Peter Phillips <p.m.phillips@champness.shef.ac.uk>
> > To: clayton stirling bartholomew <c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net>;
E.D.
> Cabanne <watrlike@quiknet.com>
> > Cc: B-Greek <B-Greek@virginia.edu>
> > Subject: Re: The Word of God and Scripture
> > Date: Tuesday, March 03, 1998 12:09 AM
> >
> > Where angels fear to tread....
> >
> > Isn't the way you have phrased the problem the issue? Why would the
> greek
> > text ever need to equate RHEMA/LOGOS QEOU with GRAFH? Clearly this
would
> > have been tautologous (the word of God is the word of God/scripture is
> > scripture) and hence redundant. IF RHEMA?LOGOS QEOU is understood as
one
> of
> > God's ways to communicate and GRAFH is one of God's ways of
communicating
> > need we seek equation in any case.
> >
> > In the end the answer to the question is almost bound to be "no,
but..."
> > The devil lies in the but...
> >
> > Pete Phillips
> > New Testament Lecturer/IT
> > Cliff College, Calver, Sheffield
> > Tel: 01246 582321 Fax: 01246 583739
> > http://champness.shef.ac.uk/



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