From: clayton stirling bartholomew (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Mar 02 1998 - 06:05:55 EST
E.D. Cabanne wrote:
> Is the phrase "the word of God" (with either logos or rhema) clearly and
> unequivocally equated with "scripture" (graphe) anywhere in the Bible? I am
> asking a strictly exegetical (distinguished from theological) question
> here. My own findings indicate that this term is almost always distinct
> from written scripture. I would be very interested in what everyone has to
> say about this, and look forward to a discussion of scriptures that might
> connect the two and further enlighten me.
I am not going to get embroiled in what is quite clearly a theological
squabble in the making. I did however use Accordance to cull up some passages
worth evaluation. I will leave that evaluation to someone else. I think Matt.
15:1-6 (note verse 5) is worth some close scrutiny and also John 10:31-36
(note verse 35). If you are looking for something like a formula using the
equative verb you are not going to find it.
For those who want a theological discussion of this topic I think Karl Barth
probably devote a few thousand pages to the subject in "Church Dogmatics."
Also Emil Brunner, in the "Divine Human Encounter" has touched on this
subject. I thoroughly disagree with both of these authors who also disagree
with each other. And with that I will drop this topic.
-- Clayton Stirling Bartholomew Three Tree Point P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:08 EDT