From: Peter Phillips (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Mar 03 1998 - 03:09:08 EST
Where angels fear to tread....
Isn't the way you have phrased the problem the issue? Why would the greek
text ever need to equate RHEMA/LOGOS QEOU with GRAFH? Clearly this would
have been tautologous (the word of God is the word of God/scripture is
scripture) and hence redundant. IF RHEMA?LOGOS QEOU is understood as one of
God's ways to communicate and GRAFH is one of God's ways of communicating
need we seek equation in any case.
In the end the answer to the question is almost bound to be "no, but..."
The devil lies in the but...
New Testament Lecturer/IT
Cliff College, Calver, Sheffield
Tel: 01246 582321 Fax: 01246 583739
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