Re: John 1:1 EN ARQH

Date: Tue Mar 17 1998 - 17:48:03 EST

Kyrychenko wrote:
> George Blaisdell wrote:
> >And yet, in virtually all mss, there is no THi ~ And my suggestive
> >question to anyone reading John is... Why?
> May be because this word being absolute in itself does not require the
> definite article?
> Alexander Kyrychenko

Exactly! Yet I would venture a guess that when taken out of the
context of the opening of the book of John, the THi is found often
with ARXH. The suggestion I raise here is that the absence of the
article may give this word a boundary-less vastness that it could not
have were the THi 'modifying' it.

Thank-you for responding...


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