From: Stevens, Charles C (Charles.Stevens@unisys.com)
Date: Thu Mar 19 1998 - 13:28:09 EST
Edgar Foster comments, on 19 Mar 1998 at 8:57AM:
<<The reason I don't agree is that (1) LOGOS did not carry the
semantical baggage in Heraclitus' day that it later came to have in the
apostle John's day.>>
Hmmm. I can't but wonder how much semantical baggage "LOGOS" carried up
until the time John 1 was written! I have always been under the
impression that the introductory portion of the Gospel of John
represents the *establishment* of a new shade of meaning for the word.
Is there evidence of this "semantical baggage"'s existence (In NT
literature or elsewhere) prior to the writing of John 1?
-Chuck Stevens [SMTP: Charles.Stevens@unisys.com]
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