Re: Leviticus 19:2 and 1 Peter 1:16

From: Glen Riddle (
Date: Sat Mar 21 1998 - 14:14:25 EST

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<P>Bill Ross wrote:
KJV, Leviticus 19:2 reads "Ye shall be holy"</FONT></FONT>&nbsp;<FONT COLOR="#000000"><FONT SIZE=-1>In
the Hebrew, "Ye shall be" is not an imperative, but an imperfect: "You
are".</FONT></FONT>&nbsp;<FONT COLOR="#000000"><FONT SIZE=-1>In the KJV,
1 Peter 1:16 reads "Because it is written: Be ye holy".</FONT></FONT>&nbsp;<FONT COLOR="#000000"><FONT SIZE=-1>In
the Textus Receptus (TR), this is an imperative. But there are several
manuscripts, used in some modern translations, that use a different word
which is in the indicative.</FONT></FONT>&nbsp;<FONT SIZE=-1>* What does
the Septuagint say for Leviticus 19:2?</FONT>&nbsp;<FONT SIZE=-1>* Which
NT manuscript should I trust here: TR? or the ones that agree with Leviticus?</FONT>&nbsp;<FONT SIZE=-1>I
think that if the NT agrees with the OT form, it is for a powerful reason.</FONT></BLOCKQUOTE>


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