From: Nichael Lynn Cramer (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Mar 23 1998 - 23:04:24 EST
Steven Cox wrote:
> What relevance does the OT requirement for valid
> testimony of "two or three witnesses" have to the
> 2 (or 3) synoptic gospels? Has anyone explored this
> in the light of 1st Century Jewish expectations?
I think it's a very cool idea. However, I don't think there's much
evidence that any --or at least very few-- communities had more than one
Gospel that early.
For example, given how quickly Mark disappeared form the scene --judging
from the textual record-- it seems fairly clear that the early communities
which developed/used Luke and Matthew, for instance, used them as
replacement for, rather than companions to, Mark. It was quite a while
before any of the early church fathers started regularly quoting more than
one Gospel on anything like an equal footing.
As Jim pointed out, the full canon is a much later development.
[See, for example, Metzger's _Canon of the NT_ or Koester's _Early
Nichael Cramer firstname.lastname@example.org Gather the folks, tell the stories, http://www.sover.net/~nichael/ break the bread. -- John Shea
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