From: Robert James Connelly (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Mar 25 1998 - 02:59:41 EST
I am also new to the list so forgive me if this question has been
thrashed already (and please direct me to the archives!)
During the recent discussion of the significance of the abscence of the
definate article for 'archee' in Jn 1:1, I couldn't help but wonder if
you all have any observations on the its abscence in the second
occurance of 'theos'.
I've read plenty of literature/grammars on this, but would appreciate
any extra insights.
p.s. I just put this through the hgrk-list. Thanks to those members who
commented. Now for those of you who missed it.
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