Re: John 1:13 ~ The 3 "nots"

Date: Fri Mar 27 1998 - 10:38:07 EST

clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:

> George

> Because this is an intriguing verse I decided to pull down a few commentaries
> (H. Alford, H.A.W. Meyer, F. Godet, B.F. Westcott, Marcus Dodds, Leon Morris,
> Raymond Brown) and see what they had to say. None of these fine fellows had
> even the shadow of a hint of any connection between Jn 1:13 and the three
> synoptics.

Clayton ~

Thank-you for this ~ The only commentary I had access to in this
little mountain community, Pastor Chan's, likewise had no mention of
this connection. If, as your report indicates, or at least suggests,
there has been no mention of it in the 2000 year history of commentary
on John, then it is either not true, [likely], or it is not important,
[almost certainly]. Yet the logic of the connection does seem
obvious, if it is true that Matthew wrote for a Jewish readership,
Mark for Roman, and Luke for Greek, each bringing divergent EQNOI into
faith in Christ. John, presumably written after Paul, then provides
for a readership that is irrespective of one's culture, being subject
to the calling of God directly in Spirit, as was Paul's.

This, however, is NOT a concern of the focus of this list, which has
to do with understanding the reading of the Greek text, so I will bail
out here, with apologies for this digression.

Thanks again...


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