John 1:1-2 & 1:18 Bookends?

Date: Thu Apr 02 1998 - 10:47:04 EST

This question has arisen as a consequence of the A:B::B:C::C:B::B:A::C
noun [and pronoun] structure of John 1:1-2, where A=ARCH,
B=LOGOS/hOUTOS and C=QEOS. The problem is the 'left over' C, which is
the preposition PROS TON QEON. It seemed repetitive when I first read
it, and so I simply took it as a stressive of the first C in the
pattern. But it is still 'left over', and a 'left over' QEOS is not
something I regard lightly. So I went looking for a 'home' for it,
and stopped at 1:18, which seems to be the bookend for this passage
and the idea came to me that it could be implicit at the end: EKEINOS
EXHGHSATO [PROS TON QEON!] My question then is, can the Greek do
this? It seems to be a long 'wrap around' indeed, so much so that I
am almost afraid to ask the question!

If it can/does, then it would seem to give PROS TON QEON the force of
WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU PETROS, which does seem exegetically helpful.

Thank-you ~

George Blaisdell

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:20 EDT