Re: John 10:29a

From: Paul S. Dixon (
Date: Thu Apr 02 1998 - 21:46:19 EST

On Thu, 2 Apr 1998 18:52:53 -0500 "Theodore H. Mann" <>
>I notice that the NRSV and a couple other versions translate the
>beginning of John 10:29 as, "What my Father has given me is greater
>than all else....," rather than the usual, "My Father, who has given
>(them) to Me, is greater than all...." I don't understand the
>rationale behind the NRSV rendering. Will someone be kind enough to
>explain it to me? Many thanks.

The NRSV follows the reading preferred by both the UBS and the NA texts,
that is, the reading supported by B which is also the more difficult
reading (compared say to the Byzantine text and the hOS relative).

We can certainly understand why a scribe would want to change the neuter
relative hO to the masculine hOS.

Paul Dixon

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