From: Edgar Foster (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Apr 07 1998 - 11:37:14 EDT
In the excellent work _Exegetical Fallacies_ DA Carson discusses GB
Caird's view of John 1:1c. Caird says that John 1:1c cannot be
considered as a statement of identity. Conversely, Carson takes issue
with this affirmation and says:
"Caird simply affirms that the second clause of John 1:1 disallows the
view that the third clause is an identity statement; but that
affirmation is demanded by neither lexical semantics nor syntax"
Is this view correct? I thought that John 1:1c unequivocally could not
be viewed as an identity statement. Is Carson mistaken here?
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