From: Paul S. Dixon (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Apr 10 1998 - 03:15:35 EDT
Upon recognizing the resurrected Lord, Mary in Jn 20:16 addressed Him as
RABBOUNI. The Hebrew/Aramaic (excuse me for not including it, am a
little rusty on the Aramaic transliteration scheme right now, but check
BAG) from which it comes means "my Lord" or "my master."
Yet, John tells us this means DIDASKALE. What happened to the MOU (my)?
Why would John not include this, if it is part of the meaning of the
Hebrew/Aramaic? Or, should we figure John was simply translating noun to
noun with no consideration for the Aramaic suffix? But, one would think
the personal pronoun would be significant in this context.
No, I don't believe John goofed (because of my theological
presuppositions), but I'd be interested to hear what others think as to
an explanation for the omission of MOU. Boy, had I been a scribe
copying this I probably would have been tempted to insert the MOU. I did
note that the NEB has "my Master."
Dr. Paul S. Dixon, Pastor
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