Re: AGALLIASQE in 1 Peter 1:6,8

From: John M. Moe (
Date: Thu Apr 23 1998 - 13:05:46 EDT

John Barach wrote:SNIP

> (5) Does Martin reject option (a), the imperatival reading, too
> easily? Is it not possible that in the midst of a rather complex
> doxology there might be a summons to rejoice (with the apostle) in the
> God who is being praised? If EN hWi does not refer back to KAIRWi
> ESCATWi, then I would be inclined to take AGALLIASQE as an imperative
> because Peter, by means of this doxology, is instructing his readers
> in
> what God has prepared for them--which, it seems from the rest of the
> epistle, was something they could easily loose sight of as they
> suffered
> as pilgrims. Since Peter's epistle is designed to equip them for
> pilgrim
> living--including a summons to rejoice in chapter 4--it seems more
> likely
> that he is calling them to rejoice in the God who has provided such
> wonderful blessings (or in the blessings provided by this blessed God)
> than that he is telling them that they already are rejoicing in these
> blessings (or this God).


In September of 1997, Dale Wheeler posted an interesting discussion of
the Praise Psalm in Biblical literature. That prompted me to post the

I Much appreciated Dale Wheeler's insights about the Praise Psalm and
its structure. copied below from Dale's post:

1) Call to Praise
2) Reason(s) to Praise
3) Renewed Call to Praise

        I have just begun a study of 1 Peter with my Sunday morning
Bible Class, and am wondering about 1:3-6, in the light of this format
and how it might influence grammatical understanding. The ELOGATOS etc.
seems to follow the format to a the letter, except that #3 is missing if
AGALLIASQE is understood to be present indicative. The form is, of
course morphologically ambiguous (Perseus gives 10 analysis of the
form). I am, always warry of looking for imperatives under every rock,
but .... Could this be the "3) Renewed Call to Praise", an invitation
issued in the imperative mood on the basis of the glorious list of "2)
Reason(s) to Praise" in verses 3-5, and in spite of the various trials
which they are now suffering?

Thoughts anyone?"

Within the last month I was preparing to preach on this text and, since
I had seen no response to my question I posted Dr. Wheeler off list to
ask the question. He vary graciously responded to my off list question,
and since he thought he had responded to the original post on list, I
will take the liberty of posting his response to my question bellow

"I thought I had responded to this onlist ???

I don't think its absolutely necessary for the verb to be imp'v for the
"rejoicing" to function as the renewed call to praise; the renewed calls
to praise in Eph certainly aren't grammatically impv, but, in my mind,
are rhetorically functioning that way. Thus the ind in 6a could be
doing the same thing (though it could also be impv); in either case it
should probably have a period after it, with the discussion of
suffering starting the next thematic section (which may or may not be a
continuation of the psalm...I'm ambivalent about that).

Hope that helps...


Dale M. Wheeler, Ph.D. Research Professor in Biblical Languages
Multnomah Bible College
8435 NE Glisan Street Portland, OR 97220
Voice: 503-251-6416 FAX:503-254-1268 E-Mail:

I have not been able to find his original response in the archives. I
would much appreciate being directed to it if someone else finds it.


Rev. John M. Moe St. John's Lutheran Church, Rich Valley

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