From: Theodore H. Mann (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Apr 22 1998 - 22:03:06 EDT
As a more-or-less beginning Greek student (self-taught), and
subscriber to B-Greek, I have noticed over the months how often OT
(Hebrew and the LXX) and ancient non-biblical materials are used as part
of the process of determining the meaning of a NT term. I wonder,
however, how helpful this really is. It occurs to me that, due to
constant changes in any language, finding out what a word means in the
LXX, or other pre-NT manuscripts, may have little to do with the meaning
of the term by the time it appears in the NT hundreds of years later.
How can it be determined that the meanings of terms used in manuscripts
antecedent to the NT are still valid by the first century? Is this the
function of the etymologist?
Thanks to any who wish to respond. This should probably be dealt with
Dr. Theodore "Ted" H. Mann
Orchard Lake, Michigan
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