From: Jim West (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Apr 23 1998 - 12:03:38 EDT
At 08:33 AM 4/23/98 -0700, you wrote:
>There would appear to be an articular infinitive in Phlp. 3.10:
>TOU GNWNAI AUTON KAI THN DUNAMIN.....
>My question is... why is the article in the genitive? I cannot find any
>previous finite verb that requires the genitive. I checked in Smythe
>briefly, but I am still puzzled.
>D . A n t h o n y S t o r m
The use of the articular infinitive with the genitive is discussed in
Blass-Debrunner, section 400. They say (in paragraph 8) "Often very little
of the consecutive sense is left with 'tou' and the infinitive and its
relationship to other elements in the sentence is very loose (epexegetical
By the way, Smyth might not be the best place to look for Koine usage as it
is a Classical Greek grammar.
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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