From: Ben Crick (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Apr 23 1998 - 23:14:59 EDT
On Wed 22 Apr 98 (22:03:28), firstname.lastname@example.org wrote:
> 1. Why does the object (if it is indeed an object proper) take the
> nominative in Mark? I understand this is not unknown in the NT (e.g.,
> Mark 3:34), but it still seems rather strange to me.
> 2. Why does Mark use the singular imperative?
My quick stab at this would be to say that Mark is using the 2 sing
imperative IDE as if it were a demonstrative like the French "Voici" or
"Voilą": "See!" or "Look!", or "here is/are..." or "there is/are...".
As the verb 'to be' is understood, it looks as if IDE has a direct object
in the Nominative; but in fact it behaves as the complement of IDE.
Russian /Vot!/ behaves in the same way.
"Voici le lieu oĚ on l'avait mis" (Selon Marc 16:6, Ostervald).
The other Ben
-- Revd Ben Crick, BA CF <email@example.com> 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK) http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm
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