Re: John 1:5

From: Jim West (
Date: Thu May 07 1998 - 14:57:22 EDT

At 02:48 PM 5/7/98 -0400, you wrote:

>When I started studying Greek I never imagined there would be so many
>opinions on the present tense. I just sort of thought that present would
>always be present. So although I certainly do not have the training to
>either adamantly agree or disagree, I would venture to side with Mr.

See the rather lengthy discussion of the use of the present tense in
Robertson's, grammar, Moulton/Turner, and of course Blass/Debrunner. Things
are never as simple as they seem- and if we reduce them to simplicity itself
we become simplistic ourselves.

Further, and to add one more twist, perhaps we should take into account
John's semitic heritage and the fact that in Hebrew syntax the "imperfect"
tense often becomes the "perfect" by the use of the "waw adversative".
Thus, if John was a Jew, and was thinking as a Jew, he very well may have
written his greek with a semitic flavor....

>~Allison (who is glad that the light is still shining in the darkness...and
>always will!)



Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology

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