Re: Wallace & 1 John 5:20

From: Jonathan Robie (
Date: Thu May 07 1998 - 15:23:56 EDT

At 01:02 PM 5/7/98 -0600, Williams, Wes wrote:

>Is it really true that the predominant subject is Jesus? If so, then who
>is the AUTOU in referent (4)? If hOUTOS refers to a predominant subject,
>would not the previous AUTOU qualify as a near subject?

Hi, Wes!

The subject would be the entire noun phrase, i.e. TWi hUIWi AUTOU IHSOU
CRISTWi. If I say "his wife", the wife is the subject, not the husband. The
same is true for Greek. And yes, as I read this passage, the predominant
subject really is Jesus.

>A.T. Robertson has a grammatical comment (and opinion) on this in his
>Word Pictures 1Jo 5:20

Yes, as you know, I'm a real Robertson fan, and I read this before posting.
But this is one occasion on which Robertson did not convince me. Not yet,
at any rate... I'm still listening!



Jonathan Robie

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