From: Jim West (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed May 13 1998 - 16:21:53 EDT
At 04:05 PM 5/13/98 -0400, you wrote:
>The noun PARABATHS (Jim gives it in the plural) is a form derived from the
>verb PARABAINW, whose meanings include "go by the side of" and (in the
>perfect) "stand by the side of" (hence the noun meaning "the fighter who
>stands by the driver with weapons" [which the driver can't handle while he
>drives]), AND ALSO the meaning "pass beyond, overstep" hence "transgress,"
>leading to the noun meaning of "transgressor."
So, (so that I am sure I understand you aright) the word came to be used of
folk who held weapons for someone else (specifically a charioteer); and came
to use them himself (stepping somewhat out of his proper bounds by doing
something he should not have?)
>Note later usage, hO PARABATHS meaning "Julian the Transgressor" (the
>Once in a while, etymology is fun, and even explains things.
Indeed it is, and does, but unless the steward was doing something improper,
how is it "transgression"? I mean I realize that the word comes from
parabainw- but if so the two derivations, i.e., weponeer and transgressor,
must then be unconnected. Is there, then, no connection between the two words?
Thanks again (and sorry to be so dense).
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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