Re: John 21:19/21 APOLOUQEI

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Tue May 26 1998 - 11:45:19 EDT

At 11:13 AM -0400 5/26/98, wrote:
>B-Greekers ~
>Awhile back, I did a translational try of these passages translating
>AKOLOUQEI as a present indicative 2nd middle, and was parsimoniously
>corrected to the imperative! I ate a huge serving of crow, and
>accepted the correction, after re-looking at my Zodhiates parsing,
>which I had misread, and went back to an imperative understanding.
> Then, this morning, I looked up this word on the Perseus page, and I
>come to find out that it is listed as BOTH. [plus 3 others in 3rd sg]
>Now my reading of this passage takes very kindly to the indicative
>mood, and what I would like to know is HOW the mood is determined in
>this passage. Is the imperative grammatically mandated? Or is it
>simply VERY generally understood as an imperative?

George, the context calls for the imperative. I think the emphatic SU in
vs. 21 makes it abundantly clear; moreover, Jesus has repeatedly,
throughout this passage, concluded his words to Peter with an imperative.
It is true that as an epsilon-contract verb AKOLOUQEW could have a
middle/passive indicative in -EI, although the more common spelling of that
contracted ending is -Hi. I must say, however, that although I haven't done
a check, I have rarely seen this verb accept in an absolute sense with a
dative complement.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243 OR

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