From: Bill Ross (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jun 03 1998 - 18:57:02 EDT
>Is the answer to Bill's question the preceding XARITI? That's how all the
translations I have available to me seem to take it, anyway. Is this verse
controversial in some way?
I'm just flaunting my ignorance.
Thanks for the straightforward reply. The only controversy is that my helps
only show "the" for the meaning, and they make no reference to "by the". It
seems like the dative should be "to the", or perhaps "in the".
But now that I am looking at it, wouldn't it be DOREA (or XARIS) and not
XARITI that associates with THi?
I would proffer "the grace of God *and* the gift by grace by [to? in?] the
one man Jesus Christ to the many did [both] super-abound."
...except that super-abound is singular. So, it seems it must either be the
grace of God *or* the gift in grace.
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