Re: John 11:35

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Wed Jun 17 1998 - 17:27:30 EDT

At 02:05 PM 6/17/98 -0700, you wrote:
>According to the Johannine Gospel account, EDAKRUSEN hO IHSOUS when he
>arrived at the tomb of Lazarus. The question I have is, WHY?? Why did
>Jesus weep before resurrecting Lazarus? The TEV indicates that he was
>"touched" by the weeping of Martha, Mary, and the Jews present
>consoling them. Others (Murray, Borchert) say that Jesus wept out of
>anger. The interpretation of this verse seems to hinge on John 11:33,
>Edgar Foster

I tend to agree with Beasley-Murray here. The context of the pericope is
such that Jesus is rightly angered because of the denseness and unbelief of
his followers. (Almost a Marcn theme, by the way). Thus, he cries out of
frustration because of sorrow (at their hardness and stupidity).



Jim West, ThD
Pastor, Petros Baptist Church
Adjunct Professor of Bible,
Quartz Hill School of Theology

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