Re: Couple o' quick questions

From: Mr. Lemuel G. Abarte (
Date: Tue Jun 23 1998 - 22:12:28 EDT

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<P>My observation in the exegesis of the BHS and perusal of the LXX is that
there is a strong correspondence in the use of the Greek words as the
translation of the Hebrew words on a one on one basis. In the verses I have
been, the LXX is a good explanation for the Hebrew particularly in some
agglutination which make the Hebrew combination very obscure and the concepts
are difficult to communicate with just an equivalent Greek word.</P>

<P>In a way, preserving the raw meanings of the Hebrew words does give a
&quot;feel&quot; of the strength of the Hebrew, while the Greek LXX makes a
refinement in the translation. Surprisingly, the KJV is a good translation of
the Masoretic Text and in many instances provide nuance to the repetitive use of
the vav (waw) conjunction.

<B>From: </B>Stephen Long &lt;;<BR>
<B>To: </B>Biblical Greek &lt;;<BR>
<B>Date: </B>Tuesday, June 23, 1998 10:24 PM<BR>
<B>Subject: </B>Couple o' quick questions<BR>
<HTML><BODY><FONT size=2>Does anybody know of a good book or article that deals
with semitic language influence on the New<BR>
Testament or LXX?<BR>
Also, is there a rule of translating similar to Occam's Razor, that the simplest
explanation is the<BR>
most likely?<BR>
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