From: Trevor M Peterson (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Jun 24 1998 - 07:13:30 EDT
On Tue, 23 Jun 1998 17:37:02 -0400 "Carl W. Conrad"
>LOGOUS really ought to be spelled out if it were
>to be understood with DUO H TREIS.
That was my basic point. But the person I was discussing this with
seemed to think that the number agreement reverses the burden, since only
an implication of the object would allow them to disagree.
>I think that's treating the logic too strictly; I rather suppose that
>TIS LALEI GLWSSHI means, "If anyone (at all) speaks in a tongue ...,"
>then we must suppose Paul is willing to accept this possibility that
>SOMEONE may do it, but that he wants to LIMIT the extent of this
>in public worship, and so he says, "If anyone does it at all, then no
>than two or three should do it at a time, and they should do it in
>and there should always be a single interpreter."
Not only did I suggest this to the other person, but I also mentioned
that the placement of the numerals in a prepositional phrase might loosen
the number agreement rules. The response was that I would have to
"adduce occurrence of such distributively functioning prepositions where
the setting demonstrates the kind of break here claimed for it, namely an
alteration in number from singular to plural (& it cannot be based on
octic=hostis or some similar word, which would per se be opener to
numeric vagueness as being more like our 'whoever'." Now, while I don't
think this is a fair assignment of the burden of proof, I would certainly
feel a lot better if some parallel construction could be found anywhere
in Greek literature, whether Attic or Koine.
>Actually I think the TIS could have been used the same way in
The scholar this man was quoting seemed to oppose that idea. Would you
happen to know of any corroborating evidence, either from some standard
grammar or more preferably from actual usage?
Trevor Peterson, M.Div.
Capital Bible Seminary
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