From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Jun 24 1998 - 14:01:02 EDT
At 9:08 AM -0400 6/24/98, David L. Moore wrote:
>At 05:48 AM 6/24/98 -0400, you wrote:
>>I don't really agree with the above interpretation, but I think it is a
>>plausible reading of the Greek with one exception: I don't believe that
>>hEIS could function as TIS does for an "indefinite 'someone'."
> Well, BAGD, sv. hEIS has a section 3 that is headed "someone =
>whereby hEIS can mean exactly the same thing as the indef. art." And
>Blass-DeBrunner notes this usage in #247 (2) where it implies that the
>Hebrew _echad_ or the Aramaic _chad_ are the model for this usage in the NT.
I confess I was too lazy to check BAGD and/or BDF, both of which I have
ready to hand here. Sorry, I ought always to allow for that Semitizing
influence. Nevertheless, I note, upon checking BDF #247 (2) that all the
instances cited in BDF are from the gospels and Revelation, none from Paul.
And upon checking BAGD (3) I get the same impression. Nevertheless, since
ENAS (= anc. hEIS) does serve as the modern Greek indefinite article (many
MG words and usages are to be seen in the Koine), I'd have to grant this is
indeed possible. I would personally be inclined to doubt, however, that
Paul is using the Semitism here.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
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