From: Jonathan Robie (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Jun 30 1998 - 08:00:18 EDT
At 12:25 AM 6/30/98 -0500, Jack Kilmon wrote:
>Donald W Price wrote:
>> Why does the KJV (in Matt. 6:9) render the phrase "ho en tois ouranois"
>> as "our Father WHICH art in heaven" instead of "WHO art in heaven" as the
>> ASV put it?
>Probably because the "which" and the "who" is strictly optional
>in translational Greek.
Bingo! Here is the complete phrase:
PATER hHMWN, hO EN TOIS OURANOIS
This is an example of second attributive position, which attributes
something to the noun. Consider this simpler example of second attributive
hO ANQRWPWS hO AGAQOS - "the good man"
But what is attributed to God is not a simple adjective like AGAQOS
("good"), but the phrase EN TOIS OURANOIS ("in the heavens"). In this
prayer, we pray to "Our in-the-heavens Father", which might be also be
translated "our heavenly Father". The traditional rendering, "our Father,
who art in heaven", is also a good translation. All of these are English
translations that try to convey the Greek form.
>The Aramaic ABba d'WUSHmaya (The Lukan form being closer
>to the ipsa verba) is simply "Father in Heaven."
Is there actually an extent copy of the Aramaic? As I understand it, it is
just a reconstruction based on later Syriac manuscripts, and there is not
general agreement whether this prayer was originally in Aramaic in the
Jonathan Robie firstname.lastname@example.org
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