From: Eric Weiss (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Jun 25 1998 - 15:12:58 EDT
Yes, it can mean wife. A good, recent book on this subject (I think it deals with the
"woman"/"wife" question you ask) is the following. It critiques other recent works in the
field and seems to be pretty scholarly in its handling of the Greek text. It's been a while
since I've read it, though. I think they make the case that while it "could" mean wife, the
context argues against it.
Women in the Church: A Fresh Analysis of 1 Timothy 2:9Ð15
By Kostenberger, Andreas J. , Thomas R. Schreiner, and H. Scott Baldwin, eds.
Catalog number: 0-8010-2020-4 Price: 21.99
Thomas Biddy wrote:
> (1 Tim 2:12 KJV) But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp
> authority over the man, but to be in silence.
> 135. gune, goo-nay'; prob. from the base of G1096; a woman; spec. a
> wife:--wife, woman.
> Can 1 Tim 2:12 mean wife?
> b-greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
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-- "Eric S. Weiss" email@example.com http://home1.gte.net/eweiss/index.htm S.D.G.
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