Re: John 1:1 EN ARCH

From: Edgar Foster (questioning1@yahoo.com)
Date: Tue Jul 07 1998 - 14:33:35 EDT


---dalmatia@eburg.com wrote:

>Most folks do not approach John as I do.

>The EGO EIMI usages that argue strongly in its favor, because of
their power and their omnitemporal denotation.<

Dear George,

The use of EGW EIMI _per se_ does not mean that "omnitemporality" or
"atemporality" is under discussion. The apostle utilizes EGW EIMI in
John 1:20:

EGW OUK EIMI hO XRISTOS

Then in John 9:9, the healed blind man exclaims:

EGW EIMI

Of course, one might say that the Gospel writer utilized EGW EIMI
differently when delineating the enfleshed LOGOS. But, could this be
an example of a priori thinking?

>When one is speaking from the ARCH, everything is present tense...
Because of its non-temporal/omni-temporal character.<

I wonder about this statement in view of the way John used ARCH
elsewhere in his writings. This, coupled with the very lexicology of
ARCH makes me doubt that it is either atemporal or omnitemporal (John
2:11; 8:44; 1 John 1:1; 2:7; 3:8).

Respectfully,

Edgar Foster

Classics Major

Lenoir-Rhyne

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