From: Phillip J. Long (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Aug 11 1998 - 11:45:49 EDT
On Tue, 11 Aug 1998 10:04:35 -0400, you wrote:
>A point of syntax: the prohibition uses the present infinitive (OU . . .
>LALEIN). The argument that I've heard--and I've never checked it across the
>NT, but the places where I've checked the argument it has stood up--is:
>normally when an infinitive is used in a prohibition, the aorist infinitive
>is used. Any time a present infinitive is used in a prohibition, there
>seems to be an emphasis on continuing action.
Discussing 1 Cor 14:34.....
I guess the question I have here is if OU modifies LALIEN. I thought
it went with EPITREPETAI, thus it would read "women should not be
This is also found in 1 Tim 2:12, the OUK there goes with the main
verb, the infinitive is complementary.
Imperitival infinitives are pretty rare (3x in the NT)
Phillip J. Long
Asst. Prof. Bible & Greek
Grace Bible College
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