From: lakr (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Aug 28 1998 - 10:08:27 EDT
> At 11:46 PM -0500 8/27/98, Kyle Dillon wrote:
> >Normally, hOUTOS refers to an immediate antecedent. Does that mean that
> >hOUTOS in 1 John 5:20 is referring to IHSOU CRISTWi, or does it refer to TON
> Well, I think that grammatically hOUTOS here can only refer to IHSOU
> CRISTWi which immediately precedes it at the end of the preceding sentence.
> Of course it is also true that this sentence makes an equation between
> IHSOUS CRISTOS and hO ALHQINOS QEOS, so that it would be reasonable enough
> to see a continuity of reference in the verse. Nevertheless, I think the
> grammatical antecedent of hOUTOS can only be IHSOU CRISTOU.
> Carl W. Conrad
Winer, page 157:
1. The prounoun hOUTOS somtimes refers, not to the noun locally
nearest, but to one more remote, which, as the principle subject, was
MENTALLY the nearest, the most present in the writers thoughts.
(Schaef. Demosth. V. 322; Stallb. Plat Phaedr. p. 28,157; Foertach,
obs. in Lysiam p. 74); as, Acts iv. 11 hOUTOS ( IHSOUS XRISTOS verse
10, the nearest preceding noun being hO QEOS), ESTIN hO LIQOS, 1Jno. v.
20 hOUTOS ESTIN hO ALHQINOS QEOS, that is, hO QOES, not XRISTOS (which
immeadiately precedes) as the older theologians on doctrinal
consideration maintained; for in the first place, ALHQINOS QEOS, is a
constant and exclusive epithet of the Father; and secondly, a warning
against idolatry follows, and ALHQINOS QEOS is invariabley constrasted
In 'A Grammatical Analysis of the Greek New Testament' by Maz Zerwick,
Mary Grosvenor (my edition is 4th) they say regarding 1John 5:20
with regards to ALHQINOS and hOUTOS "the ref. is almost certainly to
God the real, the true, op. paganism (v21)."
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