From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Thu Aug 27 1998 - 19:32:14 EDT

At 11:30 AM -0500 8/27/98, Steve Long wrote:
>I was digging around looking for other examples of ECETE in Mark and found
>one other that was imperative in Mark 9:50, ECETE EN EAUTOIS ALA. Would it
>change the meaning to say ECETE ALA EAUTOU? Does this help us? Mark's using
>a dative, but the word order is slightly different, couldn't he have said
>ECETE EN QEW PISTIN, or ECETE PISTIN EN QEW? If it doesn't change the
>meaning, why did he do it? (I know it was just to keep me awake at nights,
>yeah, that's it!)

No, these would not be grammatical or idiomatic: a prepositional phrase
cannot function adjectivally unless it is enclosed in article(s): e.g.
ECETE PISTIN THN EN QEWi, and I don't think you'd want to take the EN QEWi
as adverbial directly governing ECETE. Moreover, with a noun like PISTIS
that expresses a verbal notion, the grammatical and idiomatic way to
indicate the object of faith is with an "objective" genitive--as the author
did, in fact, do.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 OR

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