From: Micheal Palmer (
Date: Thu Aug 27 1998 - 23:39:12 EDT

At 12:24 PM -0000 8/27/98, Adam, Professor AKM wrote:
>Doesn't the problem arise from our having a technical definition for
>"hurricane" that would have been inaccessible & irrelevant to our Greek

Yes. I suspect strongly that this explains the broad use of LAILAPS in
ancient Greek (Classical and Hellenistic), but it still seems a bit strange
that LAILAPS would take on the specific meaning 'hurricane' in modern
Greek. Do we have any modern Greek speakers on the list who would care to
comment. Is the term really as specific as my dictionary claims?

Micheal W. Palmer
North Carolina State University
Philosophy and Religion (New Testament)
Foreign Languages (Ancient Greek)

Visit the Greek Language and Linguistics Gateway at
You can also access my online bibliography of Greek Linguistics at

B-Greek home page:
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: []
To unsubscribe, forward this message to
To subscribe, send a message to

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:57 EDT