From: yochanan bitan (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Sat Aug 29 1998 - 09:08:23 EDT

i curious as to whether many in northamerica or elsewhere to pronounce
Y-psilon and "OI" the same, like most post-attic, pre-byzantine spelling
evidence? [assumption: apparently it (Y/OI) was similar to french 'u',
german umlaut]. if there is a relavant 'archive' note i would appreciate a

randall buth

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