From: Paul Zellmer (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Sep 06 1998 - 19:49:32 EDT
I didn't realize when I asked my question about the *H* in James 2:15
this past weekend that this has been an area of debate in the past.
However, I finally found the time to research it in Robertson's big
yellow tome (did I get your term right, Jonathan?) and definitely got
the impression that this is an isolated case of *H* serving as a
conjunction that _combines_ two items, which would result in a plural
subject. The other possibility he points out is Gal 1:8, but it does
not appear as clearly there. Since ATR's book was written, have other
extra-biblical examples been found?
In thinking about the James verse, however, another question came to me:
Why is James _specifying_ the woman here? Is not the normal greek form
to treat the masculine form as possibly including the feminine, while
the feminine form is locked into its gender? If that's the case,
ADELFOS already gives the possibility for both, and H ADELFH is not
really required. Two questions then arise: Are there other cases that
you all can recall where both the masculine and feminine are specified,
and what is the significance of such specification?
-- Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran Ibanag Translation Project Cabagan, Philippines
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