From: Mark & Mary Markham (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Sep 09 1998 - 13:20:59 EDT
1 Corinthians 14:34
aiJ gunai`ke" ejn tai`" ejkklhsivai" sigavtwsan: ouj ga;r ejpitrevpetai
aujtai`" lalei`n, ajlla; uJpotassevsqwsan, kaqw;" kai; oJ novmo" levgei.
I have seen threads on this before, but am in the passage now. Taken by
itself (forget Timothy and 1 Cor. 11 for a min) does the Greek here prohibit
females( or wives?) from any speaking, speaking in tongues, or propecy (see
the form in verse 29.)?
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