From: Paul S. Dixon (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Sep 10 1998 - 13:05:38 EDT
On Thu, 10 Sep 1998 09:59:42 dixonps writes:
>On Thu, 10 Sep 1998 09:18:43 -0700 firstname.lastname@example.org writes:
>>I searched the archives and found nothing on eisegesis itself, but
>>simply its usage as a pejorative.
>>I am utterly unschooled in this term, and when Carl used the term
>>epexegesis a few days ago, I felt it was time to give my brain a
>>Exegesis seems to come from John 1:18, referring to an action that
>>only be undertaken by someone having certain qualities [being 'into
>>the breast of the father' etc.], and yet it seems to have acquired
>>another meaning in the schools. It seems to be used in
>>contradistinction to eisegesis, which is always a huge no-no, and
>>relates somewhat favorably with epegesis. So far, I really have
>>a boo-hurrah understanding of these terms, plus the idea that
>>is somehow objectively provable by reference to the text, and
>>eisegesis is some kind of subjective interpretation of the text.
>>[Plus the idea in John 1:18 of 'leading forth with authority'.]
>>Does anyone have an objective definition of these terms? Are they
>>derived and/or found in the GNT? Are there other '-egesai'?
>>[subegesis, hyperegesis, antegesis, prosegesis, etc. come to mind.]
>>Thanks in advance...
>Well, since I was the one who brought up the question of an
>epexegetical KAI in Mark 6:2, I should get the chance to respond.
>My Classical Greek lexicon is at the other office, but a trusty
>Unabridged indicates the following:
>EISEGESIS - "[Gr. ... a bringing in; from EISEHEIQAI, to lead, guide]
Oops, sorry. Should be EISEGEISQAI.
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