From: Mark & Mary Markham (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Sep 29 1998 - 23:08:05 EDT
I recently was directed to a site on the net to support the foolishness of
pologamy (you see my thoughts already). In anattempt to claim that the Bible
suppots such conceps the author takes some liberties with some NT verses in
1 Timothy. His claims are as follows:
<quote> The "one wife" spoken of in 1 Timothy 3:2 & 3:12 and in Titus 1:6
can also be translated as "a wife" since elsewhere, the same greek word
"mia" as used in these verses is translated as "a". See Matthew 21:19 "a fig
tree" Matthew 26:69 "a maid" or "a servant girl" Revelation 9:13 "a voice".
This would make the verse translate "husband of a wife" meaning that he must
be a married man.
"The "one wife" spoken of in 1Timothy 3:2 & 3:12 and in Titus 1:6 is
translated elsewhere as first. For example, in Mat 28:1, Mark 16:1 & 2 and
in Acts 20:7 the writer uses the same greek word "mia" as used in these
verses addressed to Timothy and Titus when referring to the first day of the
week. Therefore "husband of first wife" would be a possible rendering.
Could it be this means that this is the first time she's been a wife?
First time wife as opposed to a second or more time wife? "</quote>
It is my understanding that this one wife concept is foolish-- in fact as I
see the verse in 1 Tim 3:2 it means a "ONE WOMAN MAN".
Please shed more light here and help my understanding.
CBC Heidelberg, Germany
--- B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [email@example.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to firstname.lastname@example.org
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:02 EDT