From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Sep 01 1998 - 17:07:13 EDT
At 3:34 PM -0500 9/01/98, Kyle Dillon wrote:
>I also changed the "c" to an "s" in the subject. Sorry for the typo.
For this relief, much thanks. 'Tis a bitter long thread
And I am sick at heart.
>This message, as well as this entire thread, is about determining whether or
>not John 8:58 is a PPA idiom. I personally don't think so. In English, a
>present/perfect tense verb cannot be used with adverbials that describe
>finished time periods (see
>http://www.ihes.com/Sresource/Sstudy/presentperfect.html#basics). The same
>also appears to be true in Greek. Psalm 90:2, Jeremiah 1:5, and John 8:58
>seem to intentionally break this rule, in order to show that God transcends
I think we ought to be very leery of judging the possibilities of Greek
grammar by English usage. Who shall declare the middle voice, and with what
shall we compare it?
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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