From: Jonathan Ryder (
Date: Mon Nov 09 1998 - 05:16:28 EST

Dear BGreek,

Did (psuedo?-)Paul know what a partitive genitive is? Which grammar did he use? Did
he consult it when he wrote his letters? I write this because when discussing the
syntactical possibilities of 'righteousness of/from etc. God' in Romans 3 in a
lecture recently, the comment was made that the syntactical categories take on
different shades of meaning if you are reading an British, American or German
commentator, particularly the latter. Perhaps this would be the case in discussing
Col 1:15.

Although I've not read every contribution to the discussion in detail, I find Mr
Logan's second contribution re Jewish bkgnd most fruitful, I await responses to that.

Jonathan Ryder

see also

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