From: Glen Johnson (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Nov 19 1998 - 09:54:34 EST
Matthew 18:18 contains two uses of a future middle indicative of eimi
coupled with a perfect passive participle (dew or luw). The NAS
translates this as "shall have been bound/loosed" whereas the other
Bibles that I checked translate it as "shall be bound/loosed" or "will
be bound/loosed." I do not understand the rationale for neglecting the
perfective idea of "have been" in the majority of translations. Can you
explain this rationale to me?
Now for a question about implications. It seems to me that the "shall
have been bound/loosed" translation teaches that God wants us to seek
the decision previously made in heaven. The "will be bound/loosed"
translation teaches that heaven will ratify a decision made on earth. Am
I correct, or am I missing something?
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