1 John 1:9

From: cjgag@imap4.asu.edu
Date: Mon Nov 30 1998 - 12:09:41 EST

I recently read comments by a certain author on 1 John 1:9. He said that in
light of the Greek in the passage, it should be translated, "If we confess our
sins, he is faithful and just to have forgiven us our sins and to have
purified us from all unrighteousness." Are the verbs "to forgive" and "to
purify" really supposed to be understood as past tense?

                                                        Casey Gagnon
                                                        Tempe, AZ

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