Re: 1 John 1:9

Date: Tue Dec 01 1998 - 12:26:00 EST

On Mon, 30 Nov 1998, Mary L B Pendergraft wrote:

> Your intuition is correct: The verbs that show up in English as
> infinitives are subjunctives in Greek, and so not past time.
> The question I felt about this verse was how we should understand the hINA
> clause: They're usually (90% of the time?) clauses of purpose, but that
> didn't ring true in this context. Sure enough, BAG (sv. hINA II.1.2) cite
> this as an ex. of a result clause: "..God is faithful and just, with the
> result that he forgives our sins....."

I figured that the reason why the two verbs are in the subjunctive are because
there is a hINA clause.

                                                Casey Gagnon
                                                Tempe, AZ

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