From: David R. Mills (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Feb 04 1999 - 22:05:34 EST
I am sorry if you get this message twice. My mailer keeps trying to send the message to bgreek without the hyphen.
In Romans 10:4, NOMOU is anarthrous: TELOS GAR NOMOU CRISTOS EIS
DIKAIOSUNHN PANTI TWi PISTEUONTI. Accordingly, one commentary says that
Paul is talking about law in general and not the Law of Moses. Can a case
be made for NOMOU being definite? I notice that none of the nouns here
have articles, yet CRISTOS is definite. Can we assume that TELOS is
definite? Would it be unusual for NOMOU, which modifies TELOS, to be
definite in this case?
David R. Mills
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