Re: Pluperfect in John 7:30

Date: Mon Feb 08 1999 - 08:04:40 EST

Dear Carl,
Thanks for your thoughtful response! Forgive my lack of clarity on one point.
I did
recognize OUPW as meaing "not yet," but I wonder why John chose to use the
pluperfect of ERCOMAI in 7:30. In this verse, it is clearly the narrator's
voice we are
hearing. This differs from 2:4, where Jesus is clearly the speaker. In direct
Jesus uses the perfective present hHKEI. But in 7:30 and in 8:20, the
narrator uses a pluperfect. Why? Does he employ ELHLUQEI because, from his
he thinks of Jesus' hour as having definite duration - a duration which is
complete and
"no longer" in effect at the time of writing?
Don Larsen
Hartford, CT

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