From: Mark D. Taylor (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Feb 10 1999 - 00:21:46 EST
Hi to all,
I am brand-new to the discussion group and am looking forward to learning a
I have been doing a word-study of Righteousness, and my question is
regarding the translation of DEDIKAIWTAI in Romans 6:7, where DIKAIW is
given in the perfect tense / middle voice. The NASB has "is freed", and it
seems like almost all English translations have used the word "free".
However, it seems to me that literally it should be, "has received
righteousness" or "has been declared righteous" or "has been justified".
And this would certainly fit in very well with the whole logical discussion
of being righteous (DIKAIW) which Paul has been presenting. It seems to me
that the translators should not have done this.
And it is especially misleading to the English reader since in verse 18 a
different Gr. word is translated "freed".
Now, William Tyndale (my hero!) does have "is justified" in his
translation, but it seems most others since him have chosen differently.
The NASB also translates forms of DIKAIW as "free" twice in Acts 13:38-39
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