From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Tue Feb 16 1999 - 07:54:18 EST
TI" is used in 493 passages in the NT according to a search in Gramcord.
According to BDB/Thayer it is translated in the "AV - what 260, who 102,
why 67, whom 25, which 17, misc 67; 538". Every single translation I have
checked has used the word ╬what' in Mark 6:2. Can someone please tell me
why it can not be translated ╬why'? Using Gramcord to search the NASU NT
for every use of the term ╬why' produced no uses of the form ╬TI"' only
╬TI.' There were a few other terms used, but never ╬TI".' If the reason
is that only the neuter singular accusative can be translated ╬why', please
tell me why that is. The context of Mark 6:2 would seem to support the
question, "why is wisdom given to him?"
Thank you for helping an idiot who dosn't like to agree just because
everyone else does. Sure would save time if I did though. I just like to
--- B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [email@example.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to firstname.lastname@example.org
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:16 EDT