From: Mark D. Taylor (mdtayl@monsanto.com)
Date: Wed Feb 17 1999 - 15:58:46 EST
Thanks to all three of you for the info. I will check out the web-site that
Jeffrey mentioned.
Jeffrey asked why I am raising these questions. A friend had mentioned that
he "thought" the markings were not in the originals. And while my copy of
Nestle's has all of the markings, my Textus Receptus does not, which made
me wonder.
It seems that some introductory NT Greek courses and texts spend a fair
amount of time on accenting rules, etc., and it seems that perhaps this is
not necessary if the accents were not even in the originals?
And doesn't it also mean that sometimes the choice of breathing marks and
accenting is interpretive? It sounds like the word divisions are pretty
trustworty.
Thanks,
Mark
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