Re: Accents in the originals?

From: Bill and Stephanie Black (
Date: Thu Feb 18 1999 - 11:13:20 EST

> I've mentioned this before:
> According to a paper I heard David Balch deliver at the Southwest regional
> meeting of the SBL (in 1995?), there is evidence (inscriptions, I assume)
> that older (ca. 500 BC and older?) Greek did indeed have breaks between
> words/syllables, and some punctuation. These conventions "fell out" of the
> language during the last few centuries BC.
> Has anyone else heard or read this? I'd sure like to be able to read more
> about it.
> Perry L. Stepp

I'd like to hear more on this as well, just to satisfy my own curiosity.
I remember reading, in Turner's Greek Papyri: An Introduction, a brief
comment to the effect that until the early 5th c. BC many Greek
inscriptions had letters grouped into words, in contrast to the preference
of Graeco-Roman era scribes for scriptio continua. (He doesn't cite
any primary evidence.) Does anyone know more about this?

(And by the way, let me add my vote for "no HTML/no attachments" please!)

Stephanie Black

Tyndale House
Cambridge, UK

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